2 comments on “Did God Callously Give David’s Wives to Absalom to Rape?

  1. More and more I am finding out that it’ll be good to understand the cultural background of the period in which the Old Testament was written in to have a better understanding of why some things were done the way they were. I’ve been reading up on some of the OT Jewish practices and though no new revelationary light has been shed on any particular event as yet, it’s still very interesting.Like, back when I first discovered what a threshing floor was, I had a new understanding of why God would use it as an illustration, more than the usual explanation of, well, it was just something the ancient Jews were familiar with.Shalom!p.s. likey your bookshelf too! I’m going to add a few more books in a couple of days or so. 😉

  2. Hello!

    I know that this is an exceptionally old post; I found this while researching this topic and appreciated the time you took to find and post it.

    I have to say that there is much to this article that does not sit well with me. One thing is that rape is equated with brutality, violation and disgrace (of a seemingly social nature) whereas I think rape is much more simply defined as sex in the absent of consent. This article seems to take great pains to state that the women involved were treated well. This may be true (and I find the logic presented here compelling but far from conclusive), but more to the point I see nothing to indicate that they had any power to decide who they slept with or when, even if the act was within the confines of a marriage that was "a tool of diplomacy."

    This raises what is for me a more disturbing point of logic: that marriage and rape appear to be defined as mutually exclusive. I think that most people would agree that isn't true, regardless of one's definition of rape.

    To boil it down a bit, I feel that the logic of the article tends to fall along the lines of "no, look, there was no (public) shame, therefore there was no rape." But rape is more than that, and also less. Even forgoing the word "rape," this is a situation in which the lives of these women were directly controlled by other people without any indication of their consent. That there were likely social protocols to provide for their well-being is good but also underscores the powerlessness of their situation. Moreover, if we are presuming a God that is actively politically engaged in the lives of His people at that time, it is difficult to divorce Him from some responsibility for a system that is essentially slavery, and a slavery which involved sex and marriage as part of its terms.

    I post this because I believe there is much to this article that deserves challenging, but it is posted in good faith. If you have read this far thank you for your time, and be well.

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